Recombinant follicular stimulating hormone plus recombinant luteinizing hormone versus human menopausal gonadotropins- does the source of LH bioactivity affect ovarian stimulation outcome?

OBJECTIVE: Luteinizing hormone (LH) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) activate distinct intracellular signaling cascades. However, due to their similar structure and common receptor, they are used interchangeably during ovarian stimulation (OS). This study aims to assess if the source of LH used during OS affects IVF outcome. PATIENTS AND METHODS: This was a cross sectional study of patients who underwent two consecutive IVF cycles, one included recombinant follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) plus recombinant LH [rFSH+rLH, (Pergoveris)] and the other included urinary hCG [highly purified hMG (HP-hMG), (Menopur)]. The OS protocol, except of the LH preparation, was identical in the two IVF cycles. RESULTS: The rate of mature oocytes was not different between the treatment cycles (0.9 in the rFSH+rLH vs 0.8 in the HP-hMG, p = 0.07). Nonetheless, the mean number of mature oocytes retrieved in the rFSH+rLH treatment cycles was higher compared to the HP-hMG treatment cycles (10 ± 5.8 vs 8.3 ± 4.6, respectively, P = 0.01). Likewise, the mean number of fertilized oocytes was higher in the rFSH+rLH cycles compared with the HP-hMG cycles (8.5 ± 5.9 vs 6.4 ± 3.6, respectively, p = 0.05). There was no difference between the treatment cycles regarding the number of top-quality embryos, the ratio of top-quality embryos per number of oocytes retrieved or fertilized oocytes or the pregnancy rate. CONCLUSION: The differences in treatment outcome, derived by different LH preparations reflect the distinct physiological role of these molecules. Our findings may assist in tailoring a specific gonadotropin regimen when assembling an OS protocol.

Does the presence of AGG interruptions within the CGG repeat tract have a protective effect on the fertility phenotype of female FMR1 premutation carriers?

PURPOSE: While FMR1 premutation carriers (CGG 55-200) were shown to have reduced success with IVF treatment (lower oocyte yield), studies reporting on the association between the number of CGG repeats and patients' response to controlled ovarian hyperstimulation (COH) are inconsistent. In the present study, we aim to explore whether the number of CGG repeats in women with premutation in FMR1 gene, undergoing COH for IVF, correlates with COH variables and whether the number of AGG interruptions may function as a "protective factor" by improving the ovarian response to COH. METHODS: Retrospective study, in an academic IVF-PGD unit. Fifty-seven consecutive FMR1 premutation carriers who underwent 285 IVF treatment cycles were included. The numbers of CGG repeats and AGG interruptions were retrieved and correlated to the demographics and COH variables. RESULTS: There were no significant association between the numbers of CGG or the AGG interruptions and the number of oocyte retrieved or the peak estradiol levels. The lack of association was also observed when including all the IVF treatment cycles or only the first or last IVF treatment cycle. Moreover, no associations were found between the number of CGG repeats or AGG interruptions and other COH variables, i.e., duration of stimulation, the total dose of gonadotropin used, or the number of top-quality embryos. CONCLUSIONS: No associations were observed between the number of CGG repeats or AGG interruptions and any of the COH variables. Further studies are required to identify early biomarkers of POI to empower FMR1 premutation carriers with risk assessment tools to consider procedures such as fertility preservation.

Choosing between bad, worse and worst: what is the preferred mode of delivery for failure of the second stage of labor?

OBJECTIVE: To determine the preferred mode of delivery (vacuum, forceps or cesarean delivery) for second-stage dystocia. METHODS: Retrospective cohort study of women delivered by forceps, vacuum or cesarean delivery due to abnormalities of the second stage of labor. Primary outcome included neonatal and maternal composite adverse effects. RESULTS: A total of 547 women were included: 150 (27.4%) had forceps delivery, 200 (36.5%) had vacuum extraction, and 197 (36.1%) had cesarean section. The rate of neonatal composite outcome was significantly increased in vacuum extraction (27%) compared to forceps delivery (14.7%) or cesarean section (9.7%) (p < 0.001). There was no difference in the rate of maternal composite outcome among the groups. Both operative vaginal delivery modes were associated with significantly lower rate of postpartum infection compared to cesarean delivery (0% versus 3%, p = 0.004). CONCLUSION: Operative vaginal delivery was associated with reduced postpartum infection compared to cesarean section. Forceps delivery was associated with reduced risk for adverse neonatal outcome compared to vacuum extraction, with no increase in the risk of composite maternal complications.

Resolving appendicitis: role of CT.

BACKGROUND: We assessed the role of computed tomography (CT) in the resolution of appendicitis. METHODS: This was a retrospective study over 2.5 years involving 155 patients and 172 CT scans for suspected appendicitis in an emergency setting. RESULTS: Sixty-nine studies were positive for appendicitis by CT criteria. Of these, 53 underwent surgery: 48 were positive for appendicitis, four had other pathologies (two with colon cancer, one with colitis, one with infectious enteritis), and one had a normal appendix that was removed. Three of the 69 patients were released or left the emergency room against medical advice. Twelve patients demonstrated acute appendicitis by CT criteria but were treated conservatively because their clinical conditions were stable; four of those patients had follow-up CT that showed resolution of findings. Six patients were followed clinically, without recurrence of symptoms, and two were lost to follow-up. CONCLUSION: Resolving appendicitis is an entity that should be considered in a patient who has signs positive for appendicitis on CT but is doing well clinically. CT positive for appendicitis does not necessarily indicate surgery, and the decision for operation should depend on clinical and radiologic features.

Pleurocutaneous fistula as a complication of oleothorax. CT findings in three patients.

The purpose of this study was to highlight pleurocutaneous fistula, documented on computed tomography (CT) scans, as a complication of oleothorax. CT images of the chest were evaluated retrospectively in three patients with pleurocutaneous fistula complicating oleothorax. The images documented oleothorax rupture in all three, with only one patient (case 2) showing concomitant surrounding chest wall and axillary inflammatory reaction. Surgery performed on one patient (case 1) confirmed the CT findings. While CT is invaluable in the demonstration of complications of oleothorax, to our knowledge CT depiction of oleothorax has not been reported in the literature. This complication may be more common than described in earlier literature, with the advent of cross-sectional imaging. In the right clinical setting, CT findings of inflammation or edema surrounding the oleothorax rupture may warrant surgical intervention.

Activity of DMP 840, a new bis-naphthalimide, on primary human tumor colony-forming units.

BACKGROUND: DMP 840 ((R,R)-2,2'-[1,2-ethanediylbis[imino(1-methyl-2,1-ethanediyl)]]- bis[5-nitro-1H-benz[de]-iso[quinoline-1,3(2H)-dione]dimethane- sulfonate; NSC-D640430) is one in a series of bis-naphthalimides that binds DNA with high affinity and has sequence specificity to multiple G and C bases. It is also a potent inhibitor of RNA synthesis. DMP 840 has been selected for clinical evaluation on the basis of a broad spectrum of activity (including cures) in human tumors in murine models. PURPOSE: We evaluated DMP 840 in a human tumor clonogenic assay to estimate what plasma concentrations may be necessary for clinical cytotoxic activity and to determine what types of tumors potentially might be primary targets for initial phase II studies. METHODS: A soft-agar cloning system assay was used to determine the in vitro effects of DMP 840 against cells from biopsy specimens of colorectal, breast, lung ovarian, renal cell, stomach, and bladder cancers and from other tumor types. A total of 260 human tumor specimens were exposed continuously during the assay to DMP 840; 103 were assessable (20 colonies or more on control plates and 30% or less survival for the positive control). An in vitro response was defined as at least a 50% decrease in tumor colony formation resulting from drug exposure compared with controls. RESULTS: In vitro responses were seen in 10% (one of 10), 54% (55 of 101), 80% (82 of 103), and 89% (82 of 92) of specimens tested at 0.01, 0.1, 1.0, and 10.0 micrograms/mL of DMP 840, respectively. At a concentration of 0.1 microgram/mL, specific activity was seen against melanoma (80%) and against renal cell (80%), ovarian (63%), breast (54%), non-small-cell lung (42%), and colorectal cancers (33%). DMP 840 demonstrated activity in tumor specimens resistant in vitro to methotrexate (88%), doxorubicin (58%), platinum (57%), cyclophosphamide (53%), vinblastine (53%), etoposide (53%), fluorouracil (37%), and paclitaxel (36%). CONCLUSIONS: At in vitro concentrations of 0.1 microgram/mL as a continuous exposure, DMP 840 has activity against a variety of human tumors, including a subgroup resistant in vitro to standard antineoplastic agents. IMPLICATIONS: Further clinical development of DMP 840 is warranted.

(R,R)-2,2'-[1,2-ethanediylbis[imino(1-methyl-2,1-ethanediyl)]]- bis[5-nitro-1H-benz[de]isoquinoline-1,3-(2H)-dione] dimethanesulfonate (DMP 840), a novel bis-naphthalimide with potent nonselective tumoricidal activity in vitro.

(R,R)-2,2'-[1,2-ethanediylbis[imino(1-methyl-2,1-ethanediyl)]]- bis[5-nitro-1H-benz[de]isoquinoline-1,3-(2H)-dione] dimethanesulfonate (DMP 840), is a bis-naphthalimide anticancer tumoricidal agent currently in phase I clinical trials. DMP 840 exhibits curative activity in human tumor xenografts, where it shows selectivity for human solid tumors over murine leukemias. In contrast to the selectivity found for DMP 840 in vivo, DMP 840 exhibits potent antiproliferative activity in vitro against a variety of human and murine leukemia and solid tumor cell lines in culture, with inhibitory doses that reduce the number of treated cells to one half (IC50) values ranging from 2.3 to 53 nM. DMP 840 was growth inhibitory to three doxorubicin-resistant cell lines with IC50 values also in the nanomolar range. Clonogenic survival experiments showed that DMP 840 was equally cytotoxic to both exponentially growing and quiescent human clone A colon carcinoma cells. A 1-h incubation of DMP 840 (1.22-12 microM) caused 5-log cell kill in KB-3-1 human epidermoid carcinoma, clone A human colon carcinoma, and L1210 murine leukemia cell lines. The rapid cell killing by DMP 840 in clonogenic survival experiments and initial mechanism of action studies was consistent with a DNA-interactive mechanism for DMP 840 cytotoxicity. Mechanism of action studies in L1210 leukemia cells demonstrated that DMP 840 inhibited the incorporation of thymidine and uridine into DNA and RNA with IC50 values of 0.55 and 0.08 microM, respectively. DMP 840 produced DNA single-strand breaks in a dose-dependent manner. Double-strand breaks were not observed with DMP 840 treatment, even at higher concentrations of compound. Chinese hamster ovary (CHO) and P388 cells resistant to camptothecin and containing a mutant form of topoisomerase I were also used to evaluate whether DMP 840 was cross-resistant with agents active against topoisomerase I. While the CHOR line was 163-fold resistant to camptothecin, the CHOR line was only 1.7-fold resistant to DMP 840. In summary, DMP 840 is a DNA-interactive agent that demonstrates excellent antiproliferative activity in vitro against cultured tumor cells from both human and murine sources. Its mechanism of tumoricidal activity may be novel.

Rh(DIP)3(3+): a shape-selective metal complex which targets cruciforms.

The coordination complex tris(4,7-diphenylphenanthroline)rhodium(III), Rh(DIP)3(3+), binds to and, upon photoactivation, cleaves both DNA strands near the base of a DNA cruciform. Sites of photoinduced double-stranded DNA cleavage by the rhodium complex map to regions containing cruciforms on closed circular pBR322, pColE1 and phi X174 (replicative form) DNAs. Neither cleavage nor binding by the metal complex, assayed using S1 nuclease, is found on the linear plasmid which lacks the extruded cruciform. High resolution mapping experiments reveal that Rh(DIP)3(3+) cleaves at a specific AT-rich site neighboring the stem of the minor cruciform on pBR322. The primary site of cleavage is found at position 3238 on the 3'-strand and 3250 on the 5'-strand and is remarkably specific. The pattern of cleavage, to one side only of the cruciform stem, indicates an asymmetry in the cruciform structure recognized by the complex. These results suggest that Rh(DIP)3(3+) may provide a useful reagent to probe cruciform sites. In addition, the high degree of specificity found in targeting the cruciform structure with this simple metal complex underscores the utility of shape-selection for the recognition of specific sites on a DNA strand.